My openVPN not redirect all traffic by the gateway that is defined
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Hello everyone.
I'm trying to administer a pfsense that was already set up and there are some things I'm having trouble with.
we are defining a vpn and I don't understand why the traffic doesn't all go through the defined gateway.
with the vpn turned on I get an ip from the range defined in the configuration and my public ip appears the static ip of our company but when I tail our haproxy log file to the fqdn that we want access the website it uses the ip of my router at home like ("haproxy_clientIP":"#.##.##.##")
then in the acls defined in haproxy even if you put the pfsense gateway it does not make the exception for you to access the fqdn, but I can access it if I first put the server ip with the service port followed by the fqdn (http://## .###.##.##:9000/fqdn.xpto)
but without the vpn connected I can access using fqdn.xpto
In the vpn options I have the option selected:
(Redirect IPv4 GatewayForce all client-generated IPv4 traffic through the tunnel.)can you help?
I've already wasted many hours on tests and I don't understand what's wrong.grateful for the attention
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@pedrof said in My openVPN not redirect all traffic by the gateway that is defined:
with the vpn turned on I get an ip from the range defined in the configuration and my public ip appears the static ip of our company but when I tail our haproxy log file to the fqdn that we want access the website it uses the ip of my router at home like ("haproxy_clientIP":"#.##.##.##")
(Redirect IPv4 GatewayForce all client-generated IPv4 traffic through the tunnel.)This can happen if the VPN server IP is the same as the web service IP due to understandable reasons.
The VPN server IP cannot be routed through the tunnel naturally. -
@viragomann is not the same ip.
i can't understand why if i put the internal ip from the server 000.000.00.:9000 the site open but if i put only the fqdn it don't works