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    Site to site - How to assign same subnet IP to one device on each end

    OpenVPN
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    • C
      cobrahead
      last edited by

      I have OpenVPN up and running a site-to-site configuration between two remote locations. One LAN is 192.168.x.x and the other is 172.16.x.x ... it works great for everything I normally do between these two locations.... until now.

      Is there a way for me to assign/route/etc one of the devices on 172.16.x.x to a 192.168.x.x address. In other words, I need both devices to have a 192.168.x.x OR 172.16.x.x address.

      Thanks for any guidance!

      "PERFECTION IS THE ENEMY OF PERFECTLY ADEQUATE."

      V JKnottJ 2 Replies Last reply Reply Quote 0
      • V
        viragomann @cobrahead
        last edited by

        @cobrahead said in Site to site - How to assign same subnet IP to one device on each end:

        Is there a way for me to assign/route/etc one of the devices on 172.16.x.x to a 192.168.x.x address. In other words, I need both devices to have a 192.168.x.x OR 172.16.x.x address.

        What's the benefit of this? Do you need devices on both sites to be within the same L2?

        C 1 Reply Last reply Reply Quote 0
        • JKnottJ
          JKnott @cobrahead
          last edited by

          @cobrahead

          The only way I'm aware of is to use a TAP VPN, which is effectively a bridge between sites. With a normal TUN VPN, which routes traffic, you can't have them in the same subnet.

          PfSense running on Qotom mini PC
          i5 CPU, 4 GB memory, 32 GB SSD & 4 Intel Gb Ethernet ports.
          UniFi AC-Lite access point

          I haven't lost my mind. It's around here...somewhere...

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          • C
            cobrahead @viragomann
            last edited by

            @viragomann said

            What's the benefit of this? Do you need devices on both sites to be within the same L2?

            According to the manual for the two devices (the ones I am connecting remotely) they are supposed to be in the same L2. I think that is incorrect, I don't have to do that with any other network devices that connect with one another via this VPN. With that being said I was curious how hard it would be to allow one of the devices to 'bridge' so they could be on the same L2. I will know more when the manufacturer of these devices answers my support ticket tomorrow.

            "PERFECTION IS THE ENEMY OF PERFECTLY ADEQUATE."

            DerelictD 1 Reply Last reply Reply Quote 0
            • DerelictD
              Derelict LAYER 8 Netgate @cobrahead
              last edited by Derelict

              @cobrahead

              https://docs.netgate.com/pfsense/en/latest/recipes/openvpn-bridged.html

              Probably not going to happen for only one device unless that device is the only device on the bridged segment.

              Chattanooga, Tennessee, USA
              A comprehensive network diagram is worth 10,000 words and 15 conference calls.
              DO NOT set a source address/port in a port forward or firewall rule unless you KNOW you need it!
              Do Not Chat For Help! NO_WAN_EGRESS(TM)

              C 1 Reply Last reply Reply Quote 1
              • C
                cobrahead @Derelict
                last edited by

                @Derelict said

                Probably not going to happen for only one device unless that device is the only device on the bridged segment.

                Thanks Derelict. If it comes down to it I might try a tap connection.

                Can two site-to-site OpenVPN instances run at the same time with one in tun mode and the other in tap mode?

                That would be nice if a small segment of LAN IPs (or perhaps a separate subnet) could be in tap mode, with the bulk running in a 'normal' tun configuration.

                "PERFECTION IS THE ENEMY OF PERFECTLY ADEQUATE."

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