NAT and Multiwan.

dragon2611 · Jan 27, 2009, 9:25 PM

What happens if a 1:1 nat is set in a multiwan situation, will it just send all traffic out on the wan that has that perticular ip?

ginosteel · Jan 28, 2009, 2:53 AM

by default pfsense is sending traffic to wan but if u have wan2, wan3 etc u will need firewall rules for each one.

GruensFroeschli · Jan 28, 2009, 1:13 PM

Afaik pfSense creates automatically an AoN rule behind the scene that statically NATs everything from the 1:1 NATed IP.

I'm not entirely sure, but i think

will it just send all traffic out on the wan that has that perticular ip?

is how it works.

dragon2611 · Jan 28, 2009, 9:54 PM

Ah thanks my setup is WAN1 has 8 ip's allocated with the DSL router in bridge mode (IP's passed directly to Pfsense)
WAN2 as 1 IP and the DSL router has it NAT enabled but with PFsense in the DMZ.

I had to leave the NAT on in the router with WAN2 since both internet DSL lines use the same gateway and it's the only way i could make pfsense's failover detection work :'(

Obvisouly it would have been better redundency if id use 2 sepearte ISP's anyway, but the most outage tends to be the DSL dropping sync so having the failover working does help as PFsense is usually faster at fail-over than the DSL modem is at doing a re-sync.

cmb · Jan 29, 2009, 6:36 AM

1:1 NAT is specific to one WAN. it'll use that 1:1 NAT when using that particular WAN. you can configure one on each, or one on one of them.

dragon2611 · Jan 31, 2009, 2:37 PM

@cmb:

1:1 NAT is specific to one WAN. it'll use that 1:1 NAT when using that particular WAN. you can configure one on each, or one on one of them.

Oh that's just Cool 8)

I've actually just setup two A entries on one of my subdomains so I do a form of primitive incoming load balancing if i needed to