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    Simple Routing Question

    Scheduled Pinned Locked Moved Routing and Multi WAN
    11 Posts 3 Posters 1.7k Views
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    • D
      doktornotor Banned
      last edited by

      It just works out of the box. No idea what you are trying to invent.

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      • I
        inzanez
        last edited by

        Well, if GW 10.10.0.1 didn't have a routing table entry as where to find GW to 10.10.2.0, how should a client from within network A connect to network B? Not at all…so it doesn't "just work",...

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        • D
          doktornotor Banned
          last edited by

          Via the default gateway. Duh. So yeah, it "just works" until you start inventing "problems" and "fixes".

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          • I
            inzanez
            last edited by

            But only if the default gateway has the routing table entry for Network B?

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            • D
              doktornotor Banned
              last edited by

              It has a routing entry for any network configured on one of its interfaces. For the rest, you configure the route there manually ONCE, instead of configuring it on those zillions clients on the LAN. Sigh.

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              • I
                inzanez
                last edited by

                Yes, very nice. That's what I've done. The initial question more like: Does that extra hop (through default gateway instead directly to the gateway for Network B) has any implications…? That's all I wanted to know ;-)

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                • D
                  doktornotor Banned
                  last edited by

                  Yeah. The implication is that it's one "extra" hop. When you do not want one "extra" hop, then stop putting those computers on separate subnets.

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                  • I
                    inzanez
                    last edited by

                    Yes thanks, I already know that there's an extra hop. And no, I won't, as they HAVE TO BE on different networks,…

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                    • D
                      doktornotor Banned
                      last edited by

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                      • johnpozJ
                        johnpoz LAYER 8 Global Moderator
                        last edited by

                        Dude draw up this question

                        You state

                        • 10.10.1.0/24, called Network A

                        Then you state
                        For all the osts in Network A the default gateway is 10.10.0.1 – How and the F does that work??

                        Then
                        I set a route on that gateway to Network B: 10.10.0.2 (which is the firewall protecting Network B's interface in the Network A)

                        Where are you setting this??  So have down stream networks?  If you host route your more than likely going to have asymmetric routing..  If you have these networks both connected to pfsense - how do you think you would get to the other network without routing through that networks gateway?

                        If you trying to cut out a hop by create host routes this is problems waiting to happen!!  And extra working making sure hosts have routes..

                        If you have an actual valid question - please draw up what your asking about and happy to discuss with you why asymmetrical routing is BAD idea…  If you have downstream networks, ie another router/firewall in your network with networks behind you need to get to the best solution is a transit network.

                        As to why so many replies dok - is you keep posting ;)

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