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    Routing between Networks behind different WAN IPs

    Scheduled Pinned Locked Moved General pfSense Questions
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    • D Offline
      dabbelju007 @johnpoz
      last edited by

      @johnpoz

      Thats whats I will do. I thought it must be possible the other way even if I produce unnecessary traffic.

      But how can I use the public IP of WAN1 from LAN2 even if I route it directly? Would that be makeable by another NAT rule?

      Background to my question is that I have users using the service from home. Sometimes they come into our office and are connected to LAN2 and want to use the same service.

      Ok, if I would use DNS names I would know a way. But is it possible by using the public IP and a NAT Rule?

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      • V Offline
        viragomann @dabbelju007
        last edited by

        @dabbelju007 said in Routing between Networks behind different WAN IPs:

        Would that be makeable by another NAT rule?

        That's what NAT reflection should do for you automatically. It implies an invisible NAT rule.

        But yeah, you may as well add a NAT rule manuelly to LAN2 if you want that.
        source: WAN1 address
        dest: server

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        • johnpozJ Offline
          johnpoz LAYER 8 Global Moderator
          last edited by johnpoz

          Local dns resolution is the whole point of split dns. When the is on some other network they would use the public IP and access via your port forward.

          When they are on the site where the server is - the dns on the site would point the them to the local IP.

          Where you run into a problem is if the client is not using your dns when they come to your site. And only resolve the public IP. This is where nat reflection would come into play. But the use of dual wan would complicate the use of nat reflection most likely. This should only be an issue if they were hard coding their dns vs using dhcp to get their dns, or they were using doh in their browsers, etc.

          You could do maybe just a redirection on your lan 2 interface - if traffic hits lan 2 going to your wan 1 public 1.2.3.4 on port X, you just port forward that to server IP..

          An intelligent man is sometimes forced to be drunk to spend time with his fools
          If you get confused: Listen to the Music Play
          Please don't Chat/PM me for help, unless mod related
          SG-4860 25.07 | Lab VMs 2.8, 25.07

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          • stephenw10S Offline
            stephenw10 Netgate Administrator
            last edited by

            I would probably just use NAT reflection here if the requirement is only occasional.

            https://docs.netgate.com/pfsense/en/latest/recipes/port-forwards-from-local-networks.html#method-1-nat-reflection

            Adding a bunch of custom rules is only going to cause you more maintenance time at some point in the future.

            Steve

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            • V Offline
              viragomann
              last edited by

              However, due to the Multi-WAN setup, maybe you need the NAT reflection with proxy mode.

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              • stephenw10S Offline
                stephenw10 Netgate Administrator
                last edited by

                I would expect Pure NAT to work. You wouldn't even need the auto-outbound rules since it's between two different internal interfaces. I would enable them anyway though to allow access fro the same interface if it's ever required.

                Steve

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                • V Offline
                  viragomann @stephenw10
                  last edited by

                  @stephenw10
                  The strange thing, as the TO mentioned, he can access the server by its internal IP, but not by the WAN IP with NAT reflection in pure NAT mode.
                  So the rules must be okay, but the NAT reflection seems not to work.

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                  • stephenw10S Offline
                    stephenw10 Netgate Administrator
                    last edited by

                    I don't actually see anywhere he said he enabled NAT reflection. I just see everyone suggesting it...

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                    • D Offline
                      dabbelju007 @dabbelju007
                      last edited by

                      @dabbelju007 said in Routing between Networks behind different WAN IPs:

                      @viragomann Thanks for your advice.

                      Just for a test: Rule at LAN2 allows IPv4 any protocol to any destination. I am using IPv4 addresses.

                      The NAT Port Forward Rule @WAN1 Interface has NAT refelction enabled, as you said pure NAT.

                      It is still not working.

                      I know the Firewall Log, State Log and packet capture. Is there a way in pfSense to see in which steps this reuqest is handeled?

                      When I do the request and take a look into the firewall log I can see that there is an entry which "allows the request" out from LAN2. There is no entry for the NAT rule @WAN1 (logging in the rules is enabled).

                      What do I do wrong?

                      Thanks
                      Dabbelju

                      @stephenw10
                      I did activate it. I will do some further testing today.

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                      • D Offline
                        dabbelju007
                        last edited by dabbelju007

                        Hi all,

                        sorry if I start bothering. But I really like pfSense and want to understand as much as possible.

                        I did do some further testing (NAT Reflection Enabled with "pure NAT" and "NAT + Proxy"). I did enable it under "System=>Advanced=>Firewall & NAT" as well as in the corresponding NAT rule @WAN1.

                        I did take traces at all involved interfaces (LAN2, WAN2, WAN1, LAN1, Server) in the different scenarios. The only point where I see the packets is @LAN2. Whatever pfSense does I should see it hitting the server which is not the case.

                        What I currently do not understand: I have enable the NAT reflection at @WAN1 NAT rule. How can NAT reflection do whatever it does when the traffic is not even hitting the Interface? Shouldn't there be a Rule allowing NAT reflection @LAN2 or @WAN2?

                        Is there any other way to do debugging appart from Traces, Firewall System Logs, State Logs?

                        I would expect at least to see the packets also @LAN1 or am I wrong?

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                        • johnpozJ Offline
                          johnpoz LAYER 8 Global Moderator
                          last edited by

                          Nat reflection is not going to work if your policy routing shoving it out a gateway.

                          If lan2 is trying to hit server in lan1, post up your rules you have on lan2

                          An intelligent man is sometimes forced to be drunk to spend time with his fools
                          If you get confused: Listen to the Music Play
                          Please don't Chat/PM me for help, unless mod related
                          SG-4860 25.07 | Lab VMs 2.8, 25.07

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                          • stephenw10S Offline
                            stephenw10 Netgate Administrator
                            last edited by

                            Yeah, you will need to have a firewall rule allowing traffic from LAN1 to the server in LAN2 to pass the reflected traffic without being routed to any gateway.

                            With NAT reflection enabled when a client on any internal subnet tries to hit the WAN2 IP on a port that is forwarded it actually hits a NAT rule that sends it to the target directly. Then it hits the firewall so a rule must exist to pass the redirected traffic.

                            Steve

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                            • D Offline
                              dabbelju007
                              last edited by dabbelju007

                              @johnpoz

                              Please find attached a screenshot of the rule @LAN2. I did wipe out my public ip but in the rule is the IP of WAN1.

                              rule.jpg

                              GUESTLAN is my LAN2. In the firewall log I do see that it hits this rule.

                              @stephenw10

                              How can I have a rule which is not routing the traffic to a gateway? It will either take the system default GW or the one I have configured in the advanced options of a rule.

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                              • stephenw10S Offline
                                stephenw10 Netgate Administrator
                                last edited by

                                If you don't have a gateway defined in a rule traffic will be routing according to the system routing table. That means it will go via the default gateway for an external destination but for a local subnet, LAN 2 here, it will be routed directly.

                                You need a firewall rule on LAN1 that allows traffic from the LAN1 subnet to the server IP in LAN2 above the policy routing rule there.

                                Steve

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