Binding a local PC to WAN1 instead of WAN2
dreamerman last edited by
I plan to signup for a 4G wireless home broadband with data allowance of 50GB (WAN2). My existing WAN1 is an unlimited ADSL2+ connection. As WAN1 is unlimited and cheap albeit at a snail pace, how can I configure pfsense 2.3.1 to bind one PC (for downloading purposes) on the LAN to WAN1 while my other PCs share both WAN1 and WAN2?
eddi1984 last edited by
for the one PC to WAN1 you have to setup a Rule, that will have the PC IP address as source and WAN1 address as destination. You can also specify specific ports, port ranges or use an alias with specific ports, if you need to, otherwise leave 'any'. Under advanced settings you have to select the gateway for WAN1.
Make sure, to setup this rule above the LAN-to-any rule or any other rule, that will route your specific PC before it hits this rule.
Create a gateway group with WAN1 and WAN2 gateway and set it as the default gateway. You default LAN-to-any rule will pickup the default gateway group.
This may not be 100% accurate in its steps (doing it from memory), but should defiantly point you to the right direction.
"PC IP address as source and WAN1 address as destination"
No that is not correct. Why would the client be going to wan 1 address? The part you state about selecting wan1 as the gateway is how you would do it.
kapara last edited by
and make sure that rule is above the default rule otherwise it will not apply. rules are processed top to bottom.
User40405 last edited by
Hey, looking to do the exact same thing. Just one question, will the server still be on the local network even though it uses a different wan network? Basically will I be able to use Plex server that is hosted on the server that is using a different wan connection? Thanks.