Problems forcing traffic through a specified interface



  • So right after having MultiWan set up with failover I set up OpenVPN for both WAN connections.
    My pfSense at home acts as a client which connects to both ovpn servers in our business

    I thought about this:
    home                  business
    192.168.2.1        192.168.168.1
    pfSense–-WAN->-pfSense---LAN---server
    ovpn                  ovpn                rsync  > 192.168.169.20
    client1                server1            virtual machines  > 192.168.168.20
      |                        |
    ovpn    ---OPT1->-opvpn
    client2                server2

    Basically connections work well. But now I'd like to use rsync to sync my data over ovpn, using the client1 connection. And i'd like to rdp connect to the vms on the server using the client2 connection.
    How could that be achieved? I thought about adding a virtual IP to the server, on another subnet (see above) So I could connect my rsync at home to 192.168.169.20 and it would automatically use the connection of client2. Since the business pfSense has the LAN ip 192.168.168.1 there is no router in the 192.168.169.0/24 subnet. Can I define any routes to make the 192.168.169.0/24 subnet visible to the ovpn client2? I tried some things, but nothing worked out.
    Is there a better way to achieve my goal of using both connections for different purposes?
    I think this is rather a routing question than a ovpn question, but feel free to move my post if I am wrong.
    Thanks for reading.


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