Single IP Subnet on WAN - How?
I'm trying to replace a Cisco RV325 Dual WAN Gigabit Router with pfSense for a client network. They have a /28 publicly routable IP subnet. The current setup is that there is 1 WAN interface on the Cisco and 1 'DMZ/WAN2' interface.
126.96.36.199/28 (obviously this isn't actually their public IP address. )
188.8.131.52/28 - Network
255.255.255.240 - netmask
184.108.40.206 - broadcast
220.127.116.11-110 - usable
18.104.22.168 -- WAN on Cisco/pfSense
22.214.171.124 -- ISP Gateway
126.96.36.199 -- PBX (Statically assigned on device, I can't change this one.)
The Cisco's 'DMZ/WAN2' interface if you turn on DMZ I can just allow 188.8.131.52 - 184.108.40.206 to just be passed through on that port, so any device I have downstream on that interface I can statically assign a public IP in the available range and it just works.
With pfSense I bridged the WAN & OPT1 interfaces and the PBX can't get out on the internet. I've tried using this page from the docs as a guide but there's something that I'm missing some where.
Do I have to just waste a public IP to assign to the "CARP VIP" I don't understand how that the VIP helps with the box that's connected to OPT1 interface.
I Also looked at an actual DMZ following Jim's video from the Netgate YT channel. https://youtu.be/QFk5jX-oeSo per his notes on the slides you have to have a separate publicly routable subnet to assign to the DMZ or you have to do 1:1 NAT where your "DMZd" devices have a private IP and then just 1:1 to an available Public IP. I only have a single public subnet.
Does anyone know how to accomplish this? I feel like there is something that I'm missing, I thought this would be an easier problem to solve. Any help would be greatly appreciated. Thanks.