IPv6 subnet routing

S_Alex

Hello,
I got a routable IPv6 subnet from my ISP (2A02:2F0F:39A::/48)
I was instructed so to make the following settings on my router but I can't make it work:

WAN
IP: fe80::2A02:2F0F:39A
GW: fe80::d161/64

LAN
IP: 2A02:2F0F:39A::1/48

FIRST CLIENT
IP: 2A02:2F0F:39A::2/48
GW: 2A02:2F0F:39A::1
DNS1: 2a02:2f0c:8000:8::1
DNS2: 2a02:2f0c:8000:3::1

I made this settings and added firewall rules to allow IPv6 traffic and ICMP but I can't routing to work.
From the client I can ping the routers LAN addresses (the one I set and the link local address) but i can't ping the wan port of the router.

I didn't receive a public IP address for WAN so I set it as DHCPv6.

How can i make pfsense route my subnet throw the link local address of my WAN interface?

JKnott

@S_Alex said in IPv6 subnet routing:

IP: fe80::2A02:2F0F:39A

They actually told you to use a specific link local address? What method are you supposed to use for providing the prefix? You might want to mention the ISP. Someone else here might have experience with them.

johnpoz

@S_Alex said in IPv6 subnet routing:

LAN
IP: 2A02:2F0F:39A::1/48

They told you to do that? That is just BORKED!! if they routed the /48 to you, then you would use /64 out of that /48 on your networks.. Not the whole /48..

S_Alex

My ISP is RDS RCS in Romania.
Yes they told me to set that Link Local address but after I told them that I can't they routed the subnet throw the auto generated one. (fe80::ec4:7aff:fe7f:b026)

I just changed my LAN address to 2a02:2f0f:39a:1::1/64 and the first client to 2a02:2f0f:39a:1::2/64 but still doesn't work.

If i set a random IP on WAN interface i can ping it (I used fd45:b362:1d9e:d286::1 for test) so the routing goes to the WAN.

JKnott

@S_Alex

Here's something you can try that might provide some useful info. Disconnect the WAN cable. Run Packet Capture, filtering on DHCPv6 and then reconnect the WAN cable. Download the capture and post it here. I'm assuming they use DHCPv6.