1:1 or Virtual IPs?



  • Most of my vLans are being given a dedicated public/WAN IP address.  I've just mapped them all as 1:1 NATs, but now I think I might need virtual IP settings instead.

    Which is it?

    On top of the 'dedicated WAN' addresses for the vLans, some will also need port forwarding set up - does this change which I should use?



  • Those are two entirely different things. And if you're using public IPs internally, neither apply. More than anyone can explain here, read http://pfsense.org/book



  • The setup is;

    Bonded ADSL line in with about a dozen usable IP addresses.

    About 18 internal vLans (which must be totally closed from each other - except for the fact that one, vLan64, has to be available from all the other vLans).

    Most of the vLans will have a dedicated public IP address, but a few will have to share.

    And I need to get this working today (it's 1220 here in England)!!


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