• Hi

    Sorry for the title I am not quite sure how to describe the question

    I have tried searching and made numerous attempts but can't seem to figure out if I can achieve it.

    If anybody could offer any advice it would be much appreciated

    I have a server in a data center they use mac addresses for routing,

    I have a physical server with a WAN IP address this is the hyper-visor

    I have a pfsense virtual machine with a static mac address using WAN IP  78.68.182.156 (fictional ip although might exist but not responding to pings)

    This ip has a subnet routed to it 78.68.184.192/26 (fictional subnet although might exist )

    Giving the following ip address

    78.68.184.192
    78.68.184.193
    78.68.184.194
    78.68.184.195
    78.68.184.196
    78.68.184.197
    78.68.184.198
    78.68.184.199

    What I would like to do is have a lan with a 192.168.1.1/24 using the primary wan address 78.68.182.156 (pfsenses wan address) this would be for or own services

    We have customers that want VPS's but require they require the VPS's to have WAN address's from the subnet 78.68.184.192/26

    ie

    VPS 1 ip address 78.68.184.193
    VPS 2 ip address 78.68.184.194
    etc

    Due to the way or data center routes there network the subnet is routed to the mac address of the pfsense server thus I am not able to create another virtual switch and static a subnet ip address on a VPS and bypass the pfsense

    They would have to route through pfsense I believe, I could be completely off here but is there anyway to route/pass through a WAN IP from the routed subnet to a Server behind the pfsense so that server has the wan address

    This is a link from the provider on how to route on KVM it might help someone understand there network setup better http://wiki.hetzner.de/index.php/KVM_mit_Nutzung_aller_IPs_aus_Subnetz/en

    I am sorry for the vague explanation I don't know how to describe it better please feel for to ask me any questions


  • @CloudNut:

    This ip has a subnet routed to it 78.68.184.192/26 (fictional subnet although might exist )

    So all packets destined to that subnet end up in 78.68.182.156? How is this happening? Some sort of NAT?


  • Hi sorry for the delay

    I had only noticed your reply now apologies

    I don't think there is any NAT involved they route subnets to the mac address of the server to ensure nobody else can take your ip or subnet by mistake

    "Subnets are statically routed on the main IP address of the server, which is why no gateway is needed for the additional IP addresses. Therefore, all IP addresses, except the network address (first) and broadcast address (last), are usable. The router does not take up an IP address of the subnet.
    Example: You have the subnet 88.1.1.80/29:
    Network:  88.1.1.80
    Broadcast: 88.1.1.87
    Usable Adresses: 88.1.1.81 – 88.1.1.86"