Cannot get it right: mixing AON with 1:1 mappings

  • Hi,

    I have a dual wan setup (load balancing) with its AON rules working aparently fine for internal reserved-networks addresses in the LAN.

    I also have several NAT 1:1 mappings from public virtual ips (Ip Alias) on one WAN interface to several internal LAN (reserved-network)  IPs.

    Here's where I'm not sure if I'm getting it right, or funky things are taking place: I understand 1:1 nat will take care of outgoing connections by setting the source address to the public IP, e.g.

    WAN pu.bli.c.ip 
    IP Alias pu.bli.c.ip < –- >

    All ips but will get natted for outgoing connections to the internet, so that they will look as if they were coming from WAN pu.bli.v.ip due to its 1:1 nat should make its source address  'IP Alias pu.blic.ip' on outgoing connections.

    So, should a NO NAT rule be placed (AFAIK it should be the last??? am I wrong??) so that NO NAT is done if source address is where? before or after the regular outbound NAT rule for all the regular internal IPs??

    I tried several configs and is funny for some connections are natted correctly using "IP Alias pu.bli.c.ip" but some don't, and get natted through any of the 2 WAN NAT rules.

    Yes, I did reset states between changes.

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