1:1 IP Question
Here is what I want to accomplish, but I dont know if this is possible or not.
I want to take a device that is plugged into the ATT router and give it an internal IP, but have it remain between ATT and PFSENSE
ATT Router (192.168.1.254) –> PFSENSE (10.1.1.1) --> Software Looking for the DEVICE
DEVICE (192.168.1.250) --> (Internal IP 10.1.6.1)
Is this possible? Also, not sure if you understand, so feel free to question and I can elaborate. I would think that a 1:1 NAT would work in this case (map 10.1.6.1 to 192.168.1.250). I need to make it appear as if the 192 device is within the 10. network (This software cant search outside of a subnet)
I'm not sure a 1:1 NAT would work. That usually works in the other direction, to make you internal address appear as an external address for external machines. I guess it should work the other way around but you'd be doing everything manually. It may not be possible via the webgui.
What sottware are you running? Many similar problem can be solved by running the IGMP proxy to get across subnets.
I'm trying to use my ATT Uverse IPTV box, but because of a bug, it doesnt work on the other side.
Ah, so the IPTV box is behind pfSense and the At&t router is in front of it? Some sort of streaming app that connects to the IPTV box?
Use the IGMP proxy. I personally have almost no experience with IPTV but there are quite a few threads here detailing examples. It varies considerably between providers though.
Not quite. Tried that but it didnt work.
The ATT Router is in front of PFsense. The IPTV is plugged into the ATT router (also in front of PFSense).
Ok, so what's behind pfSense that can't see the IPTV box?