Help needed with Traffic Shaper - 4 VLAN / 2 WAN - failover but no loadbalancing

  • Hi all

    I need help with setting up the traffic shaper correctly

    I'm testing the following setup for implementation at a client:

    2xWAN connections:

    WAN1 : 4 Mbit down / 1 Mbit up DSL
    WAN2 : 20 Mbit down / 20 Mbit up Wireless connection

    4x VLAN

    VLAN10 : Office network
    VLAN20 : Guest network
    VLAN30 : VOIP Network
    VLAN40 : IP CCTV network

    VLANs 10, 30 & 40 are all work networks
    VLAN 20 is the guest network

    All work VLANs use WAN1 as the primary connection with WAN2 set as a failover - no load blancing is set
    The guest VLAN only uses WAN2, no failover

    What I need help with is how to setup the traffic shaper parent queues correctly.

    1. Should I use PRIQ, CBQ or HFSC as the shaping algorithems?
    2. Which setup would be best "Dedicated Links" or "Multiple Lan/WAn" wizzard or a manual setup?
    3. How should the different interface bandwidths be set? Should all the work VLAN interfaces have their bandwidth set as 4 Mbit and the guest VLAN interface set to 20 Mbit?
    4. What happens when the failover from WAN1 to WAN2 is triggered? Do the work VLANs still only use 4 Mbit?

    Any help would be appreciated.

  • Any help guys?

  • Correct me if I'm wrong

    The way I see it

    1. PRIQ might be to basic for this setup
        CBQ would be OK
        HFSC would be best as it would allow minimum bandwidth to be set

    2. The "Dedicated links" wizard won't work because it assumes a one to one relationship between the WAN and LAN connections. The "Multiple Lan/WAn" wizard should be OK, then the bandwidth assigned to each parent queue just needs to be adjusted.

    3. If the bandwidth for the Guest VLAN parent queue is set to the WAN2 speed (20Mbit) and the Work VLANs parent queues are set to the WAN1 speed (4Mbit) it should work fine.

    4. Logic tells me, with the Work VLANs parent queues set to the WAN1 speed (4Mbit down), then if the failover to WAN2 happens they will still only use a maximum of 4Mbit

  • Hi

    Unfortunately I don't have the same internet connections at the lab to test this, so it's all just theory, but I have been thinking:

    What if I set the guest VLAN to 16Mbit download and the work VLANs to 4Mbit - then when the work VLANs are running on the ADSL connection they should be fine and when the fail-over happens, they should get the 4Mbit that's left over of the 20Mbit connection after the guest VLAN gets its 16Mbit?

    Am I on the right track here?

  • Any help guys?