NAT and Multiwan.
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What happens if a 1:1 nat is set in a multiwan situation, will it just send all traffic out on the wan that has that perticular ip?
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by default pfsense is sending traffic to wan but if u have wan2, wan3 etc u will need firewall rules for each one.
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Afaik pfSense creates automatically an AoN rule behind the scene that statically NATs everything from the 1:1 NATed IP.
I'm not entirely sure, but i think
will it just send all traffic out on the wan that has that perticular ip?
is how it works.
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Ah thanks my setup is WAN1 has 8 ip's allocated with the DSL router in bridge mode (IP's passed directly to Pfsense)
WAN2 as 1 IP and the DSL router has it NAT enabled but with PFsense in the DMZ.I had to leave the NAT on in the router with WAN2 since both internet DSL lines use the same gateway and it's the only way i could make pfsense's failover detection work :'(
Obvisouly it would have been better redundency if id use 2 sepearte ISP's anyway, but the most outage tends to be the DSL dropping sync so having the failover working does help as PFsense is usually faster at fail-over than the DSL modem is at doing a re-sync.
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1:1 NAT is specific to one WAN. it'll use that 1:1 NAT when using that particular WAN. you can configure one on each, or one on one of them.
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@cmb:
1:1 NAT is specific to one WAN. it'll use that 1:1 NAT when using that particular WAN. you can configure one on each, or one on one of them.
Oh that's just Cool 8)
I've actually just setup two A entries on one of my subdomains so I do a form of primitive incoming load balancing if i needed to