@testcb00 said in Virtualize pfSense, two WAN, one switch, possible?:
I am not familiar with VLAN
Here's your chance to get familiar!
Traffic from the modems is almost certainly untagged. Which is very much not the same thing as VLAN1 but is a surprising common misconception.
https://docs.netgate.com/pfsense/en/latest/vlan/security.html#using-the-default-vlan1
Port based VLANs is probably not what you want here. That is typically used for separating switch ports into groups but not for trunking tagged traffic which is what you need to do here.
You need to use 802.1Q based VLANs to tag the traffic and trunk it to pfSense.
So, yes, set the PVID / Default VLAN ID (whatever it's named on that switch) on the WAN ports to 50 and 51. Then set the port connected to pfSense to trunk those VLANs. The traffic from each will arrive tagged to the pfSense NIC.
In pfSense setup VLAN interfaces for 50 and 51 on the parent Mellanox NIC. Assign those interfaces as WAN1 and WAN2. Done!
You can the same with other VLANs. You only actually need one NIC there, all the interfaces could be VLANs on it.
Steve