@ash-0
You don't map the OpenVPN subnet to your LAN, you have to map a fictitious network or IP. As I mentioned, for instance you map 172.29.136.15 to 192.168.0.15. So the client has to call 172.29.136.15 when he want to access the .15 in your LAN.
I think, it may work without adding virtual IPs to the VPN interface, cause the client directs the packets to your VPN servers IP. Never done it with port forwarding, but should work with 1:1 at all.
If it doesn't you have to add a virtual IP for each single LAN address the client should be able to access.