Thanks for the pointer~
This is just in reference to a thread that forum user DotDash assisted somebody sometime back. (http://forum.pfsense.org/index.php/topic,5253.msg31668.html#msg31668)
I just had a few questions following the post.
When creating the NAT 1:1 relationship(at the NAT 1:1 creation screen), would the external IP be the proxy arp ip that was specified in the Virtual IP's? If i wanted to translate this IP to internal address 192.168.1.10, would it look like this:
External Subnet: 123.456.453.789 (do i use /29 or /32?) Originally its /29, but since it was specified as /32 in VIP, im not sure.
Now if the internal subnet needs to use the same subnet as the external, then what should i put in as the internal subnet? Because if i put in 192.168.1.10, wouldnt that be a /24 subnet?
Also i wanted to ask, if this setup translates a VIP into a private /24 address in a LAN, how does this differ from directly assigning an internal computer with a /29 address?.
I hope somebody could provide me with some light in my search for enlightenment :)
Edit: More information added.